Fuji, you stubbornly insist on using a legal term with specific meaning developed post 1944 to mean other things.
You can repeat that until you're blue in the face and you will still be wrong.
First of all you're wrong about the date of first use of the term, it was used at least as early as 1915 with reference to the Armenian genocide, but it was used as a short form for a concept which had long been expressed, such as a hundred years prior in the extract from the British Parliament that I quoted to you earlier in the thread. The notion that a government could commit acts against its own people that were so odious, so offensive, so reprehensible, as to be universally criminal was not new in 1945, not new in 1915, not new in 1776, and not even new in 1046 BC.
http://www.armenian-genocide.org/Affirmation.160/current_category.7/affirmation_detail.html
If you look up the definition given for "crime against humanity" and go back and look at that British Parliamentary debate you will see that it's the same concept.
Well, you WOULD see, except that you've stubbornly closed your mind.
Even if I were to take your wrong claim at face value, that the term was created post 1944, you'd have to answer for how it is that a post 1944 term could have been used to prosecute pre 1944 crimes. The only viable answer, of course, is that everyone perceives that those actions were crimes, and perceived that they were criminal long before anyone coined the phrase "crime against humanity".
The phrase serves today as a useful short hand for a concept that people have understood for hundreds of years.