The NRA's main line of reasoning is, given the police are always at least twenty minutes away, citizens need to be able to defend themselves against intruders /robbers, using their own resources. In other words, the ordinary innocent citizen needs a gun.
Has anyone seen any actual statistics on the number of ordinary people who have in fact successfully defended themselves, with a gun, against an intruder /robber?
I can see the statistics being quite favourable when only the householder has a gun.
But the NRA position, very clearly, is that the robbers always do have guns. The reason the householder has to be armed, is so that he/she can take part in a gunfight with the robbers, on an equal footing.
The NRA position is that the householder, being armed with a handgun, can take part in a gunfight, and can have a good chance of winning.
Now, such a favourable outcome must occasionally have happened, in the whole history of the world. But it's the cornerstone of the NRA policy, so presumably the NRA can prove that it has happened time after time.
Presumably, the NRA executive and members have studied these statistics, and have have found them highly convincing. So, why don't they publish the statistics, and convince the rest of us?
Now, I can remember several news items where a householder shot and killed what he thought was a robber, but it turned out to be an (unarmed) innocent person, even a loved one.
But I never have seen a news item where a householder took part in a gun fight with armed intruders /robbers, and won.
That's not to say it never happened. Perhaps such a result is so commonplace that it's not news (but can you imagine yourself killing the robbers in a gunfight, and the newspapers don't bother to report it?) -- or perhaps it has never happened.
Over to you, NRA. The statistics must be available /derivable. Of all the gunfights that actually have taken place (in recent years) between armed robbers and armed householders, what percentage of these gunfights have been won by the householders?
Has anyone seen any actual statistics on the number of ordinary people who have in fact successfully defended themselves, with a gun, against an intruder /robber?
I can see the statistics being quite favourable when only the householder has a gun.
But the NRA position, very clearly, is that the robbers always do have guns. The reason the householder has to be armed, is so that he/she can take part in a gunfight with the robbers, on an equal footing.
The NRA position is that the householder, being armed with a handgun, can take part in a gunfight, and can have a good chance of winning.
Now, such a favourable outcome must occasionally have happened, in the whole history of the world. But it's the cornerstone of the NRA policy, so presumably the NRA can prove that it has happened time after time.
Presumably, the NRA executive and members have studied these statistics, and have have found them highly convincing. So, why don't they publish the statistics, and convince the rest of us?
Now, I can remember several news items where a householder shot and killed what he thought was a robber, but it turned out to be an (unarmed) innocent person, even a loved one.
But I never have seen a news item where a householder took part in a gun fight with armed intruders /robbers, and won.
That's not to say it never happened. Perhaps such a result is so commonplace that it's not news (but can you imagine yourself killing the robbers in a gunfight, and the newspapers don't bother to report it?) -- or perhaps it has never happened.
Over to you, NRA. The statistics must be available /derivable. Of all the gunfights that actually have taken place (in recent years) between armed robbers and armed householders, what percentage of these gunfights have been won by the householders?





