Hey guys, I know this is a sensitive subject but it's been bothering me. Obviously a woman can rape a man; woman knocks out man with a drug and sticks a broom up his ass or something similar. Scenarios such as these are certainly plausible. But I saw a youtube clip a couple of month's ago (it's not on youtube anymore I don't think) where a man was driving his male buddy home and the male buddy was emotionally distraught because he believed he was just raped by a woman. He claimed she had manipulated him into fucking her somehow and now he deeply regrets it. He wasn't balling like a baby, but he definitely had man tears streaking down his cheeks as he was describing this unfortunate incident.
Now I felt for the poor guy since he looked like he was in anguish, but to me, it wasn't rape. He wasn't in any way violently forced into having sex with this woman. I felt he was undermining what rape is. I had dinner with a couple of buddies later that week and I brought this up and asked them if it was possible for this man to have been raped? Or is it possible at all for a woman to rape a man without using violence? They both brought up a point saying that of course a woman can rape a man by drugging him up and having her way with him-no force needed. I thought about it for a minute and just couldn't agree. I asked, if the man is drugged out of his mind, how the hell is he able to fuck with a limp dick? They both said there are drugs that will keep a man hard while his body is paralyzed-almost like being asleep but still maintaining an erection. I can't disprove that such a pill exist but I still find it hard to believe that type of scenario. Obviously, the other way around where a man drugs a woman and haves his way with her makes more sense since the woman doesn't have to be aroused in any way.
I could be wrong, but I'm trying to see their point. I want to be more understanding if I'm sounding a little insensitive. In your opinion, what constitute rape?
Now I felt for the poor guy since he looked like he was in anguish, but to me, it wasn't rape. He wasn't in any way violently forced into having sex with this woman. I felt he was undermining what rape is. I had dinner with a couple of buddies later that week and I brought this up and asked them if it was possible for this man to have been raped? Or is it possible at all for a woman to rape a man without using violence? They both brought up a point saying that of course a woman can rape a man by drugging him up and having her way with him-no force needed. I thought about it for a minute and just couldn't agree. I asked, if the man is drugged out of his mind, how the hell is he able to fuck with a limp dick? They both said there are drugs that will keep a man hard while his body is paralyzed-almost like being asleep but still maintaining an erection. I can't disprove that such a pill exist but I still find it hard to believe that type of scenario. Obviously, the other way around where a man drugs a woman and haves his way with her makes more sense since the woman doesn't have to be aroused in any way.
I could be wrong, but I'm trying to see their point. I want to be more understanding if I'm sounding a little insensitive. In your opinion, what constitute rape?
